The NOCTI Test For Your Electronics Technician Certificate is an assessment designed to evaluate your skills and knowledge in the field of electronics. This test will be administered as a part of your application for the Boeing Company Electronic Maintenance Infrastructure Technician position hiring process.
Learn more about the job description and submit your application through the official Boeing website.
On this page we will provide you with sample questions with answers and explanations for a complete study guide. Continue reading for practice material and answering tips.
The NOCTI Test Certification in Electronics Technician for Site Services assessment, designed for Technician and Maintenance positions, measures different skills and areas of expertise. This test will measure the skills necessary to work as a Boeing technician.
The assessment will include an overall score, as well as specific scores for each of the following sections:
Applied Electrical/Electronic Theory and Circuits | Electromechanical Equipment | Preventative Maintenance and Schematics | Equipment Controls and Sensors | PLC Equipment | Computer Literacy | Safety | Electronic Equipment | Infrastructure | Distributed Control Systems (DCS) | Process Controls |
We will cover each subject individually and include free sample questions similar in the actual assessment, with detailed explanations and valuable tips. Let’s begin!
This category delves into the fundamental principles governing electricity and electronic behavior. It explores the concepts behind circuits, devices, and systems, providing the foundation for understanding more complex electronic operations.
Q1: The bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is typically characterized by three terminals known as:
A. source, gate, and drain
B. emitter, gate, and base
C. emitter, base, and collector
D. source, channel, and drain
A1: The correct answer is C.
A Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT) is a transistor that uses both electron and hole charge carriers. It has three terminals: the emitter, base, and collector. The emitter emits electrons into the base, which controls the number of electrons that can flow from the collector. The correct answer is the 3rd option, i.e., emitter, base, and collector. The other options, such as source, gate, and drain, are associated with field-effect transistors (FETs), not BJTs.
Q2: What is the total current flowing in the circuit?
A. 1.44 Ohms
B. 14.4 Ohms
C. 144 Ohms
D. 240 Ohms
A2: The correct answer is B.
The formula for inductive reactance is XL=2πfL. Plugging in the given values,
XL=2×3.14159×60×0.004=1.5×9.6=14.4 Ohms.
💡 Tip: For quick solutions to electrical circuit questions, first identify if the circuit is series, parallel, or a combination, as this will guide your approach. Set up equations using basic laws like Ohm's Law (V = IR) and Kirchhoff’s circuit laws. Simplify complex circuits step-by-step, breaking them into smaller, manageable sections until you can quickly analyze each component. In the previous example, identifying that the required inductive reactance equation is the key to the solution.
You will find more electical theory questions in assessments such as the SKAT Electrician Test, IBEW Aptitude Test, and the Ramsay Electrical Test. Find more sample questions and preparation with our Free Ramsay Test Sample.
Let’s continue next to Electromechanical Equipment – where your ability to understand concepts from both electricity and mechanics will be assessed.
Those questions refer to devices that combine electrical and mechanical processes. Typical applications include motors, drives, and actuators, which convert electrical signals into mechanical movement or vice versa.
Q3: The primary purpose of a pressure relief valve in a hydraulic system is to:
A. Control fluid direction
B. Measure fluid volume
C. Regulate system pressure
D. Initiate system start-up
A3: The correct answer is C.
In hydraulic systems, a pressure relief valve's main function is to ensure that the system pressure doesn't exceed a predetermined set value. When the system pressure exceeds this value, the relief valve opens, allowing fluid to flow out of the system or back to the reservoir, thus preventing potential damage or failure due to over-pressurization. Therefore, the correct answer is C - regulate system pressure.
Q4: A stepper motor is commonly used in applications requiring:
A. Precise positioning
B. Continuous rotation
C. High torque
D. High-speed operation
A4: The correct answer is A.
Stepper motors are designed for precise positioning and control, making them suitable for applications requiring exact movements. Hence, the correct answer is A - precise positioning.
Get more practice for your basic mechanical and physical principles with the Free Mechanical Aptitude Test.
Whether you are a student or a career professional, you might face the challenge of taking a NOCTI assessment throughout the hiring process for certain positions. NOCTI is a company that offers certification for students and workers to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in a particular field based on industry standardas that are recognized by employers nationwide.
If you are looking for a different NOCTI test, or are not sure which test is relevant for your position, please contact us and we will do our best to ensure you get the preparation you need. Our team of experts is working on developing more NOCTI tests PrepPacks.
The next category is Preventative Maintenance and Schematics. Let’s proceed.
This category is centered on the proactive upkeep of electronic equipment to prevent future failures. It also includes the study and interpretation of schematic diagrams, which detail the layout and connections of an electronic system.
Q5: When reading a schematic diagram, dashed lines usually represent:
A. Permanent electrical connections.
B. Physical layout of the circuit.
C. Logical connections but not necessarily direct wires.
D. Ground connections.
A5: The correct answer is C.
Dashed lines on schematic diagrams often represent logical connections, which might not necessarily be direct wires. They can show internal connections within a device or other conceptual links. The correct answer is C - Logical connections but not necessarily direct wires.
Q6: Which of the following is NOT typically a recommended practice when performing preventative maintenance on high-voltage electrical contractors in an industrial setting?
A. Cleaning and inspecting the arc shields.
B. Ensuring tightness of all bolted electrical connections.
C. Checking the mechanical linkages for signs of wear or damage.
D. Applying a thin layer of conductive grease on the primary contacts.
A6: The correct answer is D.
High-voltage electrical contactors are crucial components that enable or disrupt the flow of electricity in industrial circuits. While it's essential to clean and inspect arc shields, ensure tight connections, and check mechanical linkages, applying conductive grease on the main contacts can reduce the efficacy of the contactor and pose a potential risk. Good electrical contact should be metal-to-metal, and any substance in between can degrade the connection. Therefore, the answer that is NOT recommended is D - Applying a thin layer of conductive grease on the primary contacts.
💡 Tip: Familiarize yourself with standard preventative maintenance procedures for critical electrical components such as transformers, circuit breakers, contactors, and relays. Manuals often have manufacturer-recommended maintenance procedures. Reviewing these can offer insights into best practices and intervals for specific maintenance tasks.
You can find more electronics maintanance questions in the Walmart maintanance assessment.
Let’s continue to the next category - Equipment Controls and Sensors.
This domain focuses on devices that regulate or monitor operations in an electronic or mechanical system. Sensors detect environmental changes, while controllers make decisions based on these inputs to manage equipment behavior.
Q7: In a closed-loop control system, feedback is provided to the:
A. Sensor only.
B. Actuator only.
C. Controller to adjust and achieve desired output.
D. External network for data logging.
A7: The correct answer is C.
In a closed-loop control system, feedback is continuously provided to the controller, allowing it to adjust and achieve the desired output based on its current state. The correct answer C - Controller to adjust and achieve desired output.
Q8: Proximity sensors detect:
A. Temperature variations.
B. The presence or absence of an object without physical contact.
C. Changes in light intensity.
D. Pressure levels in a system.
A8: The correct answer is B.
Proximity sensors are devices that detect the presence or absence of an object without any physical contact. The correct answer is B - The presence or absence of an object without physical contact.
💡 Tip: While it may seem trivial, you must be well prepared and know the basics. The questions in the test may sometimes seem niche – but if there are any concepts you are weak at or unfamiliar with, they will consume valuable time. Reviewing the basics again to start your practice when you understand the questions and explanations provided is recommended.
The next category, PLC Equipment – is very specific and requires knowledge and understanding of Programmable Logic Controllers. Let’s continue.
Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs) are industrial computers that control manufacturing processes. This category delves into the design, programming, and troubleshooting of PLCs and their associated equipment.
Q9: Which of the following devices can be connected directly to an analog input of a PLC?
A. Potentiometer
B. Ethernet switch
C. Flash drive
D. Communication protocol converter
A9: The correct answer is A.
PLCs (Programmable Logic Controllers) have various input and output connectors, including digital and analog inputs/outputs. Analog inputs are typically used for devices that provide a range of values, like a potentiometer, which varies resistance and thus can produce a variable voltage or current signal. The correct answer is A - potentiometer. The other options serve different purposes: an ethernet switch is for network connections, a flash drive is a storage device, and a communication protocol converter translates signals between different communication protocols and typically connects to a communication port, not an analog input.
Q10: In a PLC-controlled environment, relays, buzzers, and motor starters are commonly used as:
A. Feedback devices
B. Actuation devices
C. Communication modules
D. Memory units
A10: The correct answer is B.
In a PLC system, the PLC reads input signals, processes them based on its programmed logic, and then sends signals to control outputs. Relays, buzzers, and motor starters are typically devices controlled by the PLC to act upon or change the state of processes or equipment, making them actuation devices. Hence, the correct answer is B - actuation devices.
Let’s continue to a different category less directly connected to the previous: Computer Literacy. Your basic computer science and operating system knowledge is assessed.
This encompasses a foundational understanding of computer operations, software applications, and digital tools. It involves the capability to use computers proficiently for various tasks and problem-solving.
Q11: Which of the following commands is used to diagnose and possibly repair issues with a computer's file system?
A. fsck
B. ping
C. set driver:
D. netstat
A11: The correct answer is A.
To identify and potentially fix problems with a computer's file system, especially in Unix-like operating systems, the command fsck (file system consistency check) is utilized. This command checks the consistency of a filesystem and can repair it if instructed. The correct answer is A - fsck. The other options (ping, set driver:, and netstat) serve different purposes: ping tests network connectivity, set driver: is not a standard command, and netstat provides network statistics.
Q12: Which value represents the minimum a signed 16-bit counter can count to?
A. 0
B. -32767
C. -32768
D. 1
A12: The correct answer is C.
A 16-bit counter, when signed, can represent negative values. A 16-bit counter can count from -32,768 to 32,767 for signed numbers in two's complement notation. The most negative value it can represent is -32,768.
The next category is straightforward – Safety. Questions regarding protocols, regulations, different agencies, etc., will be presented. Let’s continue.
Safety pertains to the practices, guidelines, and protocols designed to protect individuals from harm, especially when working with electronic equipment. This includes understanding hazards, precautions, and using protective equipment.
Q13: Which federal agency is primarily responsible for ensuring workplace safety and health in the United States?
A. EPA
B. FDA
C. OSHA
D. DOT
A13: The correct answer is C.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a federal agency under the United States Department of Labor. Its primary responsibility is to ensure safe working conditions for employees in the U.S. by enforcing standards and regulations related to workplace safety and health. Therefore, the correct answer is the C - OSHA.
Q14: An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) provides information about:
A. Equipment operation
B. Circuit diagrams
C. Network protocols
D. Chemical hazards
A14: The correct answer is D.
An MSDS details specific chemicals' properties, including hazards and safety precautions. The correct answer is the 3rd option, chemical hazards.
💡 Tip: Most of the questions in this category will not include calculations or conceptual understanding – but straightforward knowledge. If you are not sure of the answer, try to eliminate as many answers as possible. I.e., in the first question, even if you are not sure of the question, you most likely have heard of the FDA (U.S. Food and Drug Administration), which does not concern workplace safety – thus immediately increasing the odds of guessing correctly.
Let’s continue with another category concerning different equipment – Electronic Equipment.
This category focuses on devices and tools that rely on the principles of electronics to function. It includes many items, from simple diodes and transistors to complex integrated circuits.
Q15: When verifying the active current flow through a device, which type of instrument should be employed?
A. Oscilloscope
B. Wattmeter
C. Resistance tester
D. ammeter
A15: The correct answer is D.
An ammeter is the most appropriate instrument to measure or verify the active current flow through a device or circuit. It is designed to measure electric current in direct (DC) or alternating (AC) forms. Therefore, the correct answer is D - ammeter.
Q16: An oscilloscope is primarily used to measure and view:
A.Chemical reactions
B. Voltage waveforms
C. Resistance values
D. Current flow rate
A16: The correct answer is B.
An oscilloscope displays voltage waveforms and is used to observe the change of an electrical signal over time. The correct answer is B - voltage waveforms.
Practice more equipment sample questions with our Free Heavy Equipment Operator Test practice page.
The next category, Infrastructure, requires further knowledge of equipment and framework for communication purposes, among others. Let’s proceed.
This pertains to the underlying framework and foundational structures essential for operating communication and data systems. This includes networks, communication protocols, and connectivity solutions.
Q17: The maximum amount of data that a network can transfer over a specific period is known as?
A. Latency
B. Throughput
C. Resonance
D. Polarization
A17: The correct answer is A.
In telecommunications and computer networking, the term that describes the maximum data transfer rate over a network or communication link in a specific period is called 'throughput'. It reflects the data rates, considering network congestion, protocol overhead, and other interferences. Therefore, the correct answer is the B - Throughput.
Q18: When experiencing intermittent connectivity with an Ethernet cable between a computer and a router, you should consider all of the following actions EXCEPT
A. Swapping to a Cat 6 cable.
B. Relocating the router closer to the device.
C. Ensuring the cable is not tangled or twisted.
D. Increasing the network's MTU size.
A18: The correct answer is D.
The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size determines the largest packet size that can be transmitted over a network. Arbitrarily increasing the MTU size without understanding the infrastructure can cause packet fragmentation or dropped packets, further exacerbating connectivity issues.
The next set of questions relates to DCS. Like PLC, they ask about a specific type of device with distributed control elements.
DCSs are control systems wherein control elements are distributed throughout the system rather than being centralized. This approach offers advantages like reduced wiring and enhanced scalability.
Q19: Which of the following best describes a Distributed Control System?
A. A system with a centralized controller managing all components.
B. A system where control tasks are shared among multiple localized controllers.
C. A system controlled by manual user input.
D. A system that relies solely on mechanical control mechanisms.
A19: The correct answer is B.
A DCS is a system where control tasks are distributed among several localized controllers, allowing for more efficient and reliable control. The correct answer is B - A system where control tasks are shared among multiple localized controllers.
Q20: One of the primary advantages of a Distributed Control System (DCS) over traditional centralized control systems is:
A. Reduced wiring costs and distances.
B. Greater manual control over each component.
C. A simpler system architecture.
D. Limited scalability and modularity.
A20: The correct answer is A.
One of the notable benefits of DCS is the reduction in wiring costs and distances, given that control devices can be located closer to the field instruments. This also results in faster response times and increased reliability. The correct answer is A - Reduced wiring costs and distances.
Let’s continue to the final category in the Boeing Electrical Technician NOCTI test – Process Controls.
This involves using instrumentation and control systems to manage and optimize production and manufacturing processes. It ensures that variables like temperature, pressure, and flow stay within desired limits during operation.
Q21: When zeroing a differential pressure transmitter with no applied pressure, the technician should vent both sides to:
A. Atmospheric pressure.
B. The high-pressure source.
C. The low-pressure source.
D. The output signal.
A21: The correct answer is A.
When calibrating a differential pressure transmitter, especially during the zeroing process where no pressure difference is intended, both the high and low sides of the transmitter should be exposed to the same pressure. Typically, this means venting both sides to atmospheric pressure to ensure there's no differential pressure across the transmitter. Therefore, the correct answer is A - atmospheric pressure.
Q22: Given a pressure transmitter with an input range of 0 psi to 300 psi and an output range of 2-10 VDC, what would the output voltage be if the input is 240 psi?
A. 6.4 VDC
B. 8.4 VDC
C. 9.14 VDC
D. 10.00 VDC
A22: The correct answer is B.
We can use a linear relationship based on the provided input and output ranges to determine the output voltage for a given input. The input range spans 300 psi, and the output range spans 8 VDC (from 2 VDC to 10 VDC). The output would increase by 8 VDC/300 psi for every psi increase in the input. Therefore, at 240 psi, the output would be
2 VDC + 240 × 8 VDC/300 psi = 8.4 VDC
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