TEAS Practice Questions
Welcome to your comprehensive guide to the TEAS test! Success on the Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS) is vital for admission to nursing and allied health programs.
Many schools rely on TEAS scores to select students, and a high score can significantly boost your chances of acceptance.
This guide offers expert tips, study strategies, and TEAS practice questions to help you excel on the ATI TEAS and secure your place in your desired program.
This page contains updated information on the most recent TEAS 7 version.
TEAS Practice Questions:
The TEAS test, developed by Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI), is a standardized test used by nursing and allied health schools to assess a student's academic preparedness for entry-level healthcare programs. It evaluates essential skills in four key areas: Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language Usage.
The test consists of 170 questions and takes up to 3.5 hours to complete.
This Reading section of the TEAS test measures your reading comprehension, attention to detail, and the ability to efficiently and systematically read, analyze, and choose your answer. It includes three topics – Key Ideas and Details, Craft & Structure, and Integration of Knowledge & Ideas.
You will have 45 questions to answer in 55 minutes.
Note that there will be 6 pretest questions that do not count in your final score.
When Sofia moved into her new apartment in downtown Chicago, she was excited to explore the city's vibrant culture and cuisine. One evening, as she was unpacking boxes in her living room, she noticed a peculiar sound coming from the balcony. Curious, she peeked outside and was delighted to find a family of colorful birds nesting in the corner.
She immediately fetched her camera and began documenting their daily activities. Over the weeks, Sofia observed the birds caring for their young and even spotted them feeding on the seeds she left out for them. She named the parent birds Ruby and Oscar, and their chicks were soon named Peep and Pip.
what is a reasonable prediction about what the author will include in the paragraphs to follow?The correct answer is D (Sofia's observations of Ruby and Oscar's interactions with their chicks and their feeding habits).
The passage describes Sofia's discovery of a family of birds nesting on her balcony and her subsequent observations of their activities. Sofia's documentation of the birds caring for their young and feeding on seeds indicates that the upcoming paragraphs will likely detail her observations of Ruby and Oscar's interactions with their chicks and their feeding habits. Option D is correct because it aligns with the information provided and is a reasonable prediction based on the passage content.
The correct answer is B (To entertain readers with thrilling tales of adventure and daring).
Answer (B) is correct because the passage introduces Captain Redbeard in the context of thrilling tales of adventure and daring. The description of Redbeard as a notorious pirate who terrorized the high seas suggests that the author's purpose is to entertain readers with exciting and adventurous stories.
Answer (A) is incorrect because while the challenges of life as a pirate are implied, they are not the primary focus of the passage.
Answer (C) is incorrect because although the passage mentions maritime trade, it does not delve into the historical context in detail.
Answer (D) is incorrect because while the economic impact of piracy is mentioned (Redbeard amassing a vast fortune), it is not the main purpose of introducing Captain Redbeard in the passage.
The correct answer is C (Rising global temperatures contribute to the vulnerability of coral reefs).
The passage discusses how rising global temperatures contribute to coral bleaching and the vulnerability of coral reefs. It explains that warmer ocean waters cause coral bleaching, which weakens coral reefs. Therefore, option C, which states that rising global temperatures contribute to the vulnerability of coral reefs, is the correct conclusion drawn from the passage.
Answer (A) is incorrect because, according to the passage, coral bleaching is not primarily caused by disease outbreaks.
Answer (B) is incorrect because ocean acidification inhibits, rather than enhances, coral growth and reproduction, as mentioned in the passage.
Answer (D) is incorrect because the passage suggests that coral reefs are vulnerable rather than resilient to changes in their environment caused by climate change.
The Math section of the TEAS test measures your numerical reasoning skills and ability to analyze and apply numeric information. It includes two topics – Numbers & Algebra and Measurement & Data.
You will have 38 questions to answer in 54 minutes.
Note that there will be 4 pretest questions that do not count in your final score.
Using personal calculators is prohibited.
How many points did the competitor "Elena Starlight" obtain if she received 9 compliments from the judges and 18 compliments from each family member? Elena's family consists of 15 people.
The correct answer is C (480).
To solve this problem, we can break it down into calculating points from judges' compliments and family compliments separately, then summing them up.
Judges' Compliments:
Elena received 9 compliments from the judges. For every 3 compliments from the judges, she earns 150 points. To find out how many sets of 3 compliments fit into 9, divide 9 by 3:
9 / 3 = 3 sets
Now, multiply the number of sets by the points per set:
3 sets * 150 points/set = 450 points
Family Compliments:
Elena received 18 compliments from her family. For every 45 compliments from family members, she earns 30 points. To find out how many sets of 45 compliments fit into 18, divide 18 by 45:
18 / 45 = 0.4 sets (since 18 is less than 45, she only gets 30 points)
Now, multiply the number of sets by the points per set:
0.4 sets * 30 points/set = 12 points
Total Points:
Add the points from judges' compliments and family compliments together:
450 points + 30 points = 480 points
Therefore, Elena Starlight obtained 480 points in total.
The correct answer is D (The house never lost value over the ten years).
Each point on the graph is either equal to or greater than the previous point. Therefore, the house never reduced in value over the ten years.
Answer (A) is incorrect because there is a positive relationship in the graph. The points are going upwards.
Answer (B) is incorrect because eight years after purchase, the value of the house was $500,000 and not $500.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the house's value began at $350,000. Doubling in value would mean the house would be worth $700,000 after 10 years. In fact, it is worth less than $600,000.
The Science section of the TEAS test measures your knowledge of life and physical sciences. It includes four topics – Human Anatomy & Physiology, Biology, Chemistry, and Scientific Reasoning.
You will have 50 questions to answer in 63 minutes.
Note that there will be 6 pretest questions that do not count in your final score.
Which of the following bones is classified as a sesamoid bone?
The correct answer is A ( Patella).
A sesamoid bone is a type of bone that develops within a tendon, often near joints. The patella, commonly known as the kneecap, is a prominent example of a sesamoid bone located in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. It functions to protect the knee joint and improve the mechanical advantage of the muscle by increasing the angle of pull. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not classified as sesamoid bones: the scapula is a shoulder blade (flat bone), the radius is a forearm bone (long bone), and the mandible is the jawbone (irregular bone).
Which of the following processes occurs in both mitosis and meiosis?
The correct answer is C (Duplication of chromosomal material).
Duplication of chromosomal material, or DNA replication, is a process that occurs in both mitosis and meiosis. Before cells divide, whether in mitosis or meiosis, the DNA within the cell must replicate to ensure that each daughter cell receives a full set of genetic information. This process occurs during the interphase preceding both mitosis and meiosis.
Option (A) Crossing over between homologous chromosomes is a process unique to meiosis, where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material during prophase I.
Option (B) Division of a diploid cell into two haploid daughter cells occurs specifically in meiosis II, where haploid cells resulting from meiosis I divide to form four haploid daughter cells.
Option (D) Formation of gametes specifically refers to meiosis, where diploid cells undergo two divisions to produce haploid gametes (sperm or eggs).
Therefore, option (C) Duplication of chromosomal material is the correct answer as it is a process common to both mitosis and meiosis, ensuring genetic fidelity in daughter cells.
Which one of the following statements is true?
The correct answer is D (There are two intermediates and three transition states in the overall reaction).
The graph depicts the reaction pathway from reactant A to product D. Reactant A is less stable than product D, as indicated by its lower position on the y-axis. The peaks represent activated complexes, which are less stable than both the reactants and products. Points B and C denote transition states, which have lower energy than the activated complexes but are less stable than the products in terms of energy expenditure.
Specifically, an activated complex forms transiently during collisions and is entirely unstable, capable of either dissociating back into reactants or forming products. Transition states are characterized by the highest energies along the reaction profile, while intermediates are relatively stable species involved in the reaction mechanism but are neither reactants nor appear in the reaction rate law. According to the profile, the reaction mechanism involves three transition states (points of maximum energy) and two intermediates (points B and C).
Thus, option (D) is correct. Activation energy represents the minimum collision energy required for a chemical reaction to initiate, acting as a barrier separating reactants from products. Only a fraction of colliding molecules possess adequate kinetic energy to surmount this barrier. In a reaction profile, the activation energy for a forward reaction equals the energy difference between an activated complex and a reactant.
Option (A) is incorrect because the enthalpy change (ΔH) of the reaction reflects the energy difference between products and reactants, indicating an exothermic reaction (ΔH < 0) due to lower product energy. Option (B) is incorrect because the fastest step in the reaction pathway is C → D, not B → C, owing to its lower activation energy. Option (C) is incorrect because the rate-determining step in the overall reaction is A → B, not B → C, due to its higher activation energy.
The correct answer is A (Graduated cylinder).
A graduated cylinder is suitable for measuring and transferring larger volumes of liquids with reasonable accuracy. It allows the student to measure out exactly 5 milliliters of the solution from the original test tube containing 50 milliliters. This tool is appropriate for this task because it provides graduated markings that indicate various volumes.
Answer B) Beaker is incorrect because while it can hold liquids, it does not provide the precise measurements needed for transferring exactly 5 milliliters.
Answer C) Volumetric pipette is incorrect because it is more suitable for transferring very precise, small volumes of liquids, typically less than 5 milliliters.
Answer D) Stopwatch is incorrect because it is used to measure time and is not relevant to liquid measurement or transfer tasks in the laboratory.
The English and Language Usage section of the TEAS test measures your language proficiency, grammar, and vocabulary. It includes three topics – Conventions of Standard English, Knowledge of Language, and Using Language and Vocabulary.
You will have 37 questions to answer in 28 minutes.
Note that there will be 4 pretest questions that do not count in your final score.
Which of the following pieces of dialogue is punctuated correctly?
The correct answer is B ("Where are you going?" she asked, "without your coat?").
When a dialogue sentence ends with a question mark, the question mark should be placed inside the quotation marks. A comma must follow the quotation marks before the dialogue tag. The continuation of the dialogue starts with a lowercase letter if it is part of the same sentence. The only answer that follows these rules is answer (B).
The correct answer is A (obedient).
The word “recalcitrant” means “resisting authority or control; not obedient or compliant.” The word “obedient” means “complying or willing to comply with orders or requests; submissive to another's will.” Therefore, the words “recalcitrant” and “obedient” have opposite meanings, which makes them antonyms, and answer A is correct.
Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the words “defiant,” “stubborn,” and “unyielding” all have similar meanings to the word “recalcitrant” and not opposite meanings.
In the hallway stood Mr. Johnson, _____ we greeted warmly as he entered the building.
Which of the following pronouns correctly completes the sentence above?
The correct answer is B (whom).
The pronoun functions as the object of the sentence and should, therefore, be "whom."
Answer (A) is incorrect because the pronoun "who" functions as the subject of the sentence, i.e., who performs the action. "Whom," on the other hand, should be used as an object and not a subject. Note that in the relevant clause, "we" perform the action on Mr. Johnson and not the other way around. Therefore, Mr. Johnson is the object and not the subject, and thus, the correct pronoun is "whom" and not "who."
Answer (C) is incorrect because the pronoun "which" refers to things rather than people.
Answer (D) is incorrect because the pronoun "that" refers to things rather than people.
Here are some important tips to keep in mind, in order to prepare yourself for the test:
Understand the Test Format: Familiarize yourself with the exam's structure, number of questions, and time constraints for each section.
Create a Study Schedule: Plan a realistic study schedule that covers all four sections of the exam.
Practice Regularly: Practicing with timed mock exams and sample questions is crucial to improving your time management skills. Regular practice will help you get accustomed to the time constraints and increase your efficiency on test day.
Review Essential Concepts: Focus on key concepts within each section and seek clarification on any areas of difficulty.
💡 Testing Day Strategies
Your TEAS test score is based on the percentage of questions you answer correctly. You'll receive individual scores for each section and subtopics, allowing you to identify your strengths and weaknesses. However, the overall score is more complex, as each section is weighted differently. Each school has its own criteria for the total score and may consider specific sub-scores. Confirming the required score with the school or college you are applying to is advisable.
The TEAS test evaluates essential academic skills needed for entry-level healthcare programs, including reading comprehension, mathematics, science, and English and language usage. It measures a student's readiness for nursing and allied health programs, with specific focus areas such as numerical reasoning, human anatomy, and language proficiency. Scoring well on the TEAS is crucial for admission into these competitive programs.
The TEAS test consists of 170 questions in total, spanning four sections: Reading (45 questions), Mathematics (38 questions), Science (50 questions), and English and Language Usage (37 questions).
The TEAS test can be challenging due to its comprehensive coverage of four key areas: Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language Usage. Success on the test is crucial for admission to competitive nursing and allied health programs.
A good score on the ATI TEAS Test typically depends on the requirements of the nursing or allied health program to which you are applying. Different programs may have varying score expectations. However, as a general guideline:
It's essential to research the requirements of the programs you're interested in and aim to achieve a score that aligns with their expectations. Keep in mind that a higher score can improve your chances of admission, but meeting the program's minimum requirements is crucial.
To prepare effectively for the TEAS test, begin by understanding its structure and time constraints for each section. Develop a study schedule that covers all areas—Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language Usage—and prioritize regular practice with timed mock exams to improve time management skills. Focus on mastering key concepts within each section and seek clarification on challenging areas.
Aim to dedicate about 6 to 8 weeks for the ATI TEAS test preparation. Study for 2 to 3 hours daily, covering content review, practice tests, and review of weak areas. Adjust your plan based on progress. Incorporate full-length practice tests to simulate exam conditions. Allow a day or two of rest before the exam for mental and physical well-being.
The TEAS test includes math section focused on numerical reasoning, problem-solving, and applying numeric information across two topics: Numbers & Algebra and Measurement & Data. These areas assess your ability to analyze and use mathematical concepts effectively within the context of healthcare and allied health programs.
The hardest part of the TEAS test is often managing the time constraints across its diverse sections—Reading, Math, Science, and English. Each section demands both depth of knowledge and quick decision-making, requiring candidates to balance thorough comprehension with efficient problem-solving within strict time limits.
