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Updated: September 2026 | Verified against the official USPS Exam 955 (MSS) format
USPS Exam 955, officially the Maintenance Selection System (MSS), is the qualifying exam every candidate must pass to be considered for a USPS maintenance position, such as Maintenance Mechanic, Electronic Technician, Building Equipment Mechanic, Area Maintenance Technician, or Mail Processing Equipment Mechanic. This screening step is one of the first hurdles in the maintenance hiring process, and a passing score keeps your application moving forward.
The exam is administered in two parts:
This page offers a free sample of the question types and topics you're likely to see on the technical portion of Exam 955, helping you start your preparation with confidence. Our practice questions are intentionally written to be tougher than the real exam, so you'll be ready for whatever comes up on test day.
*The Multicraft and Spatial Relations sections make up the proctored technical portion of Exam 955. A score of 70 or higher (excluding Veterans' Preference points) is required to pass, and your result factors directly into which maintenance positions you become eligible for.
Postal Exam 955 is administered through the USPS Maintenance Selection System and consists of two timed parts:
Source: USPS Assessment Information Package, Exam 955
Candidates receive a test invitation from USPS after submitting a job application and clearing an initial eligibility review. The exam is taken in-person at a designated USPS testing center - bring a government-issued photo ID and your assessment login credentials.
Scoring: A score of 70 or higher (excluding Veterans' Preference points) is required to pass. A score below 70 results in an "Ineligible" status and a mandatory 6-month wait before retesting. Veterans' Preference points are added to a passing score only - they cannot convert a failing result.
Many candidates start their prep by searching for a postal exam 955 study guide PDF. A free PDF can give you a basic outline of the topics covered, but it cannot simulate the timed, high-pressure format of the actual test. To build real readiness, pair any study guide with timed practice tests that mirror the Multicraft and Spatial Relations sections.
Video - 955 Exam Explained: Study Guide & Practice Test Tips
The test is divided into two major components:
60 Questions | 60 Minutes
Topics Covered:
65 Questions | 60 Minutes
Skills Assessed:
Since the second section is time-sensitive, practicing similar problems beforehand can help candidates improve speed and accuracy.
The Electrical section covers three core areas: AC/DC theory, parallel circuits, and test instruments. While these topics may seem familiar, the 955 exam goes deeper than basic knowledge - expect formula application under time pressure, multi-step circuit calculations, and instrument questions that go well beyond simply knowing what a voltmeter does.
In a 110V electrical system, there are three appliances: appliance A (550W) appliance B (770W), and appliance C (330W). Given that all appliances operate simultaneously, what is the minimum required fuse rating?
Click the correct answer:
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The correct answer is C.
The minimal fuse rating should be higher than the normal operating current of the system. Since an electrical system is connected in parallel, the total current in the system when all three appliances are working is the sum of all three.
The current consumption of each appliance is calculated by:
I = P/V
Where:
Therefore:
The total current in the system is 5 + 7 + 3 = 15A
In order to withstand normal working conditions, the minimal fuse amperage rating must be greater than 15A, thus 20A.
When calculating fuse ratings, remember that the total current of devices in parallel is the sum of each device's current. Ensure your fuse rating is slightly above this total to handle typical operating conditions safely.
The total resistance of the circuit is:
Base your answer to the following question on the figure below:
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The formula to calculate the total resistance (RT) in a circuit where N resistors are connected in parallel is:
1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 … + 1/RN
If we substitute the values from the figure we get:
1/RT = 1/240 + 1/40 + 1/80
The common denominator is 240:
1/RT = 1/240 + 6/240 + 3/240 = (1+6+3)/240 = 10/240 = 1/24
This is the reciprocal value for RT (1/RT), thus - RT is 24 Ω.
The correct answer is C.
In parallel circuits, remember that the total resistance decreases as more resistors are added. Use the reciprocal formula to combine resistances effectively and find the total resistance.
In electrical circuits, the voltmeter is always connected in ____________ and the ammeter is always connected in ____________.
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The correct answer is D.
In electrical circuits, voltmeters are always used in parallel to the nodes where the potential is required to be determined. However, ammeters are always connected in series to measure the desired current in the branches. These connections are shown in the figure below.
Remember, place the voltmeter in parallel to measure voltage and the ammeter in series to measure current. Using them in the wrong positions can cause inaccurate readings or damage to the meter.
The Mechanical Systems section covers hydraulics, pneumatics, and piping - three areas that trip up even experienced candidates. The 955 exam tests both practical knowledge and underlying theory, meaning familiarity with the tools alone is not enough. Expect questions on system components, pressure principles, and material specifications that require solid preparation to get right under timed conditions.
Which type of valve should be used when a precise, low flow is required?
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The correct answer is B.
A needle valve is constructed as an elongated, narrow plunger inside a small port. This structure enables the valve to regulate the flow with high precision. However, it is not capable of withstanding high pressure.
A check valve is a valve that enables flow in only one direction, using a ball, a piston, or a spring-loaded flapper.
A gate valve operates by lifting a gate from the path of the fluid. These gates are planar and are mostly used with high-volume, unrestricted flow.
In hydraulic systems, remember that each valve type serves a unique function. Choose a needle valve when fine-tuning flow is essential, especially in systems sensitive to pressure changes.
Which type of pipe would be most recommended to install deep beneath the ground?
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The correct answer is D.
The schedule of a pipe is a dimensionless number that refers to the wall thickness of a pipe. The higher the schedule; the thicker the wall.
When installing a pipe underground, it is important for it to have a thick wall due to the pressure of the soil and other structural elements that may lie on top of it. Therefore, a schedule 120 type pipe will be best suited for such an application.
For underground piping, durability is key—pipes with higher schedule numbers offer the strength needed to endure the weight and pressure from surrounding soil.
What is the aim of flexible couplings?
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The correct answer is B.
The aim of flexible couplings (such as universal joints or Oldham couplings) is to allow a certain degree of misalignment between connected shafts (it may be an axial, lateral, or angular misalignment). Rigid couplings, on the other hand, require absolute alignment between shafts and are somewhat limited in that manner.
When connecting shafts, consider flexible couplings to help accommodate slight misalignments, which can reduce wear and tear on machinery over time.
The Motors & Controls section covers motor theory and PLC ladder logic - two areas that consistently challenge candidates across all maintenance roles. Motors require both theoretical understanding and practical knowledge of how they behave in real systems, while PLC questions demand the ability to read and interpret control diagrams under time pressure. Neither rewards guesswork. For Electronic Technician candidates in particular, the Motors & Controls section is critical - it covers the schematics, digital electronics, and control systems that make up the core of the USPS Electronic Technician exam.
In induction motors, the difference between the synchronous and asynchronous speed of the rotor is referred to as:
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The correct answer is B.
Induction motors which are also called asynchronous motors work on the principle of induction which is inducing a current in the rotor by changing the magnetic field of the stator.
We can differentiate two definitions of speed in induction motors:
The difference between these two is called slip. Therefore, B is the correct choice.
As for the other answers, single phasing (A) occurs when one of the motor terminals is loose or disconnected making the motor run on a single-phase. No-load speed of a motor (C) is the maximum speed of a motor when there is no load applied.
Understanding the difference between synchronous and asynchronous speed is key. Remember, "slip" is the gap between these two speeds, which allows induction motors to function effectively.
What is the equivalent Boolean expression for the PLC program below?
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The correct answer is A.
Below are the steps of analysis:
Pay attention to how the ladder logic groups elements—this can guide you in identifying the correct Boolean expression quickly.
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The Spatial Relations section covers three question types: 3D objects, matching parts and figures, and matching shapes. While these may look like visual puzzles, the 955 exam demands more than pattern recognition - expect figures presented at unfamiliar angles, multi-piece assembly questions where small differences are easy to miss, and 3D visualization tasks that require fast, accurate mental rotation under time pressure.
Select from the drawings of objects labelled A, B, C and D the one that would have the given TOP, FRONT, and RIGHT views.
TOP
FRONT
RIGHT
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Explanation:
You are shown a shape made up of two or three separate pieces - identify which of the answer options below is one of those pieces. Pay close attention to angles and orientation, as pieces may appear rotated from how they sit in the original shape.
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Among the three pieces, there's a total of four acute angles and a single straight angle. Since joining two pieces will effectively increase the angle of the shape, we can eliminate the rectangle (as it requires four straight angles) and the triangle (as it requires three acute angles). The first option involves using a shape (pink) different than the original (black outline).
You are shown six labeled shapes (A-F) and must identify which answer option can be formed by combining two or more of them.You are shown six labeled shapes (A-F) and must identify which answer option can be formed by combining two or more of them. Look carefully at how edges and angles align when pieces are joined - rotating or flipping shapes mentally is key to finding the correct match.
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The PEAK Performance Assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of your personality, work style, and experience designed to assess your compatibility with the position and the P&G organization. It combines situational judgment, personality, leadership, and motivation questions to provide a holistic view of your potential. As a standardized P&G psychometric test, the PEAK is used consistently across roles and regions to ensure every candidate is evaluated against the same criteria.
Review the following statement:
"I am productive and successful in work projects."
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Answer:
The best answer is e. Strongly agree.
This statement is one measuring Competence, a quality in the Conscientiousness domain. If you tend to agree with this statement, you’ll be perceived as more competent and efficient in your work, whereas disagreement presents incompetence and the inability to prepare for a given situation.
Different positions require more or less emphasis on each trait. In this case, being productive and successful is a very important trait if you keep in mind the core P&G values we enlisted above.
The PEAK Performance Test requires a combination of honesty and strategy. You certainly do not want to be disingenuous on this assessment test, but you want to make sure your best self shines through both the personality and the situational judgment test questions.
When taking the PEAK Performance Test, it is recommended to be informed by the P&G Values and Principles. These are the company's self-professed identity markers. They include Integrity, Leadership, Ownership, Passion for Winning, and Trust. Read more about them here.
Read the following scenario:
John is a well-respected manager in the firm. He has a lot of experience and has been with the organization for a long time. Unfortunately, John was recently caught taking refreshments from the snack bar without paying for them. He was warned that he could be dismissed if he continued to behave in this manner. However, someone noticed John getting more refreshments from the snack bar last week before heading home.
What would you do in this situation?
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The best option is answer B.
This situation is designed to measure your integrity and ownership.
In this situation, one of the managers was dishonest for an extended period, violating the company's policy. Therefore, it is best to respond with an active action, however not too drastic, as he is a senior manager.
In answer B, you take an active step to ensure that this behavior will not continue, indicating that the integrity of the employees is of the highest value. The fact that John is a respected manager should not prevent you from dealing with his actions. On the contrary, a manager should set an example for the other workers, making it even more important to address his behavior and clarify the consequences of his acts.
Answer (A): Firing the manager is a severe disciplinary action. It shows that you are not willing to compromise on the integrity of your employees, but at the same time, it might be too drastic. John was warned that he might be fired, so it seems reasonable to give him another opportunity before termination, especially since he is valued. In addition, it might be somewhat exaggerated to define the manager’s actions as “stealing.” For these reasons, answer B seems better than A.
Answer (C): This response is the equivalent of doing nothing, which is rarely the correct answer in SJT questions. It is always recommended to choose answers that involve your active decision unless all active actions are causing more harm than good (which is rarely the case). By selecting this response, you indicate that you do not see the severity of the manager’s actions and do not believe that integrity is a critical component in a workplace. Furthermore, it shows little ownership of what is happening around you in the company. P&G is looking for people who accept accountability and treat the company’s assets as their own.
Answer (D): Making John pay for the refreshments will not ensure that he will refrain from his actions in the future. By giving this punishment, you acknowledge that there has been a violation of trust, and you offer John a way to take accountability for his actions. However, it may imply that these actions are forgiven as long as you pay, so it does not address the central issue of violating the confidence that was given to you.
Answer (E): By talking to John and explaining why he should stop acting the way he does, you respect the company's values and want to do the right thing. It is positive to use your communication skills to try and persuade the manager to change his ways. Still, it might not work as he is well aware that his behavior is problematic and is against company policy. For this reason, it is not the best option even though it has positive aspects.
Although many think there are no right or wrong answers in personality tests, this is a common misconception as your answers are reviewed in light of the requirements of your position and the company values.
Therefore, answering similar questions to the P&G PEAK Performance Assessment while reviewing the meaning of each answer and identifying the one that best reflects the required abilities and values for your position can greatly increase your chance of passing the P&G test.
Learn more about preparing for the PEAK Performance Assessment.
The PEAK Performance Assessment measures how well your personality, work style, and values align with P&G's culture. It combines situational judgment, personality, leadership, and motivation questions to create a complete profile.
What PEAK stands for: P&G's core values
Question types you'll see:
Why it matters: While there are no "wrong" answers, your responses are scored against P&G's ideal profile for your role. Answers that conflict with P&G values (Integrity, Ownership, Leadership) can disqualify you even if you pass the cognitive tests.
Strategy tip: Review P&G's official Values and Principles before taking the test to understand what they're looking for.
The best way to prepare for the P&G interactive assessment and PEAK Performance Assessment, is to practice questions in the same format as the actual test. This will enable you to both experience the challenging test format with questions getting progressively more difficult while time runs out, and to learn how to answer questions quickly and effectively under the tight time limit.
JobTestPrep’s P&G PrepPack includes high-fidelity simulations of the Switch Challenge, Grid Challenge, and Digit Challenge, mirroring the official Aon/Cut-e testing environment.
It includes:
Additionally, get Switch Challenge and Digit Challenge PrepPacks for a discounted price.
The Switch Challenge questions in the P&G assessment test contain four symbols that change their order according to an operator. Your task is to transform the input shape sequence (numbered from left to right) into the output shape sequence using a four-digit operator.
Each digit in the operator corresponds to the previous position of each shape before it was altered. The new order of the shapes' positions aligns with the digits in the operator. For each question, you'll choose one or more operators that match the changes in the shape order.
The top sequence, using one of the three operators, turns into the bottom sequence
What is the correct operator?
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Answer:
The correct operator is c. 4312.
Let's explain:
The order of the first sequence of symbols at the top is 1 yellow hexagon, 2 purple triangles, 3 blue stars, and 4 red rhombuses.
The operators (number sequences) between the two symbol series indicate what the new order will be, i.e., where each symbol will be placed. We need to see if the order in the operator matches the order in the second series of symbols.
We can see that number four (red rhombus) is now first in the second sequence, and since the operator 4312 indicates just that, we can tell it is the correct operator without even checking the rest of the shapes.
The top sequence, using one of the three operators, turns into the bottom sequence
What is the correct operator?
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Answer:
The correct answer is c. 4213.
This question is more difficult and appears in higher levels reached as you solve more questions correctly.
In this question, we need to consider two operators - each one reordering the symbols. To solve this question we need to work in two steps:
First, we need to reorder the symbols according to the first operator and hold that new order in mind.
Second, based on the new order, we check which of the second operators leads to the order in the second set of symbols.
Let's look at the yellow hexagon: in the first sequence, it is number 4. The green operator then puts the yellow hexagon in third place. When we see that in the second sequence, the yellow hexagon is in the number 4 position, we know that the correct operator must have the number three in the fourth position - which is why the 4213 operator is correct.
To recap - the yellow hexagon's position in the sequence goes from 4 to 3 and then back to 4.
Learn more about the P&G Switch challenge with our full guide
The Switch Challenge is a **logic sequencing game** that tests your pattern recognition under time pressure. You'll see four symbols (shapes like triangles, stars, hexagons, and rhombuses) that change position according to numerical operators.
**Key mechanics:**
- **6-minute time limit** with 15-20+ questions
- Questions get **progressively harder** as you answer correctly (adaptive algorithm)
- Each "operator" (like 3142) tells you how to reorder the shapes
- You must identify which operator transforms the top sequence into the bottom sequence
**Why it's difficult:** The test deliberately overloads your short-term memory by forcing you to mentally track 4 moving objects simultaneously. Most candidates see their accuracy drop after question 8-10 when the difficulty spikes.
**Pass rate:** Less than 20% of candidates successfully complete this section on their first attempt without preparation.
The Switch Challenge is specifically designed to overload your short-term memory, and with the stressful time limit, you can easily become overwhelmed. The best way to prepare for this test is by practicing a test as close as possible to the actual P&G Switch Challenge questions, with the same time limit and varied questions that become progressively harder. For this purpose, we have created exclusive interactive P&G practice tests, simulating the exact same test format.
Boost your chances and save! Get the Procter & Gamble Assessment Test Practice and enjoy a discount on the Switch Challenge Preparation.
The Digit Challenge is a numeracy test that aims to examine your ability to perform numerical calculations quickly and accurately. You will be presented with math problems including a predetermined result, blank spaces, and operators. Your objective is to discover a digit combination that can fill the empty spaces and make the mathematical expression accurate.
Find the numbers that make the equation work.
Remember - in the real P&G test you will be timed!
Answer:
As mentioned earlier, digit challenge questions usually have more than one answer - especially in the lower level.
This question is taken from the intermediate difficulty level, and we see that we must find four numbers that can fit into the empty spaces and be equal to 7.
A number of options:
5+1-2+3=7
7+2-6+4=7
1+7-3+2=7
Find the numbers that make the equation work.
Remember - in the real P&G test you will be timed!
Answer:
This is a more complex question, taken from the more advanced levels of the digit challenge (it gets more difficult too, don't worry!).
Here we have a three-digit number on the right of the equation and three missing numbers, each connected by multiplication.
A good way of solving these questions is keeping it simple - use the smallest numbers you can!
In this case, we can think of what number multiplied by 2 equals 112 and how to create that number by multiplication. 112 equals 56*2, and 56 equals 7*8.
If so - 7*8*2=112.
This part of the assessment test comprises a calculation test. Similar tasks can be found on the SHL calculation Test or the Optiver Test.
The P&G Digit Challenge is not to be confused with the Pymetrics Digits Game, although they are both gamified assessments.
Learn more about the P&G Digit Challenge with our full guide.
Our P&G Interactive Assessment PrepPack is tailored to the actual test. This way you will be able to practice with 200+ examples and get familiar with the interactive format. JobTestPrep is the leading provider of interactive tests that will most accurately give examples to practice for the P&G assessment.
Take a look at this video to see how our platform looks and how to answer properly.
Prepare smarter! Purchase the Procter & Gamble Assessment Test Practice and access the Digit Challenge Preparation at a reduced price.
The Digit Challenge is a mental math speed test disguised as a puzzle game. You'll see equations with missing numbers and your task is to find digit combinations that make the equation true.
Key mechanics:
Why it's difficult: The time pressure forces you to make mental calculations at 10-15 seconds per question. Most candidates slow down dramatically after question 12 when multiplication and division enter the mix.
Strategy tip: Work with small numbers first. For 112 ÷ 2 = 56, think "what small numbers multiply to 56?" (7×8) rather than trying complex division. Start with the smallest factors and build up.
What P&G is testing: Your ability to process numerical information quickly under pressure—critical for roles in supply chain, finance, and data-driven brand management where you need to spot patterns in metrics fast.
In each round, you will be presented with a memorization question followed by a spatial orientation question. The memorization question requires you to memorize the location of a colored dot on a grid. The spatial orientation question requires you to determine whether two grids of dots are identical, rotated, or mirrored. The Grid Challenge is a timed test, and the difficulty of the questions increases as you progress. Take a look at the following video to better understand the test and then try answering the questions below.
Before proceeding to the question, observe the hidden picture for 30 seconds and remember which dot is marked red. You will need this for a future question.
Symmetry: these types of questions will contain two grids with a line dividing between them. You have to determine whether the grids are symmetrical or not, such as the following.
Is the image symmetrical?
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Answer:
No.
There's a missing dot on the left box in the 6th line, therefore they are not identical.
Before proceeding to the question, observe the hidden picture for 30 seconds and remember which dot is marked red. You will need this for a future question.
Rotation: For these questions, you need to determine whether the right and left grids are identical, only rotated.
Are the images identical but rotated?
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Answer:
No.
The shapes are not identical since the diagonal "line" is identical, while the horizontals are not. Therefore, when rotated, the diagonal line will change direction.
Before proceeding to the question, observe the hidden picture for 30 seconds and remember which dot is marked red. You will need this for a future question.
Combination: Each question will contain three grids and you must determine whether the bottom grid is the "result" of the combination of the two top grids.
Is this correct?
Correct!
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Answer:
Yes.
When putting both shapes together, they create the third shape, it shows exactly the same lines.
Now is the time to recall those hidden images. Observe the grid:
Where on the grid and in which order did the dots appear?
Learn more about the interactive Grid Challenge.
The Grid Challenge is a tough nut, especially with the timing and increasing difficulty. Your best way to overcome this obstacle will be to create strategies and practice repetitively. Our Procter and Gamble Assessment Test Practice will let you practice as much as you need on infinite different rounds, offering the best practice.
The Grid Challenge tests spatial memory and visual pattern recognition through a dual-task format. Each round alternates between:
Key mechanics:
Why it's difficult: Your brain must simultaneously process NEW visual information while retaining OLD memory data. This creates cognitive interference that causes most candidates to forget locations by round 3.
What P&G is testing: Your ability to handle multiple priorities under pressure—a core skill in fast-paced brand management and supply chain roles where you're juggling several projects simultaneously.
Strategy tip: Use chunking techniques—group dots by quadrant or create mental "landmarks" rather than trying to remember individual coordinates.
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Once you pass the online assessment, the next step is one or more structured interviews. These are typically competency-based and may be conducted via video or in person, depending on location and role.
What to Expect
Common P&G Interview Questions
How to Prepare
P&G also expects candidates to reflect its stated Values & Principles - Integrity, Leadership, Ownership, Passion for Winning, and Trust - throughout the hiring process. These are broader company values rather than the specific behavioral factors your interview answers are scored against, but they're worth keeping in mind when framing your "why P&G" answers.
Want More?
Check out our full P&G Interview Prep for:
Most candidates who pass both assessments are invited to 1-2 rounds of interviews, whether by video call or in person, depending on location. Learn more about the P&G Interview Questions and how to prepare for them, or go straight to our AI-powered P&G Interview Prep to start practicing.
Sharpen your sales skills with our P&G Virtual Job Preview!
P&G offers several entry points for students and graduates, each with unique eligibility and competitive selection.
Internships
Tip: Apply early, highlight leadership skills, and prep for the assessment ASAP
Graduate Schemes
Tip: Strong assessment + interview = direct offer into the scheme
Student Programs
P&G uses its assessment test not only for experienced professionals but also for entry-level and grad positions. You can find out more on their grad scheme website.
If you have any questions left, we will be happy to help. Feel free to contact us at: c.serv@jobtestprep.com
Less than 20% of candidates pass the combined PEAK Performance + Interactive Online Assessment on their first attempt. The Switch, Grid, and Digit Challenges are specifically designed to filter out 70-80% of applicants before they reach interviews. Candidates who complete targeted practice simulations with timed, adaptive repetition significantly improve their speed and pattern recognition - the two skills the assessment is designed to test under pressure.
Immediately—even before applying. Here's why: You'll typically receive your test invitation within 24-72 hours of submitting your application. Most candidates discover the test difficulty too late and fail. Our recommendation: Complete at least 50-100 practice rounds BEFORE applying so you're ready the moment the invitation arrives and can take advantage of the optimal 48-72 hour testing window.
There are no “right” or “wrong” answers, but some responses are more aligned with what P&G looks for. It’s still a screening tool, so poor alignment may result in disqualification.
If you fail the P&G assessment, you cannot reapply for 12 months. This means missing P&G's entire hiring cycle for that year. With P&G's June 2025 announcement of 7,000 job cuts (6% workforce reduction) alongside continued graduate hiring, competition for remaining positions is fiercer than ever. The cooldown period makes your first attempt critical—you literally cannot afford to fail.
The full assessment takes 40–60 minutes. Each interactive game (Switch, Grid, Digit) lasts about 5–6 minutes. The PEAK Performance section is untimed but typically takes around 20 minutes.
Yes - P&G's hiring process includes aptitude-style cognitive challenges as part of its Interactive Assessment. The Switch, Grid, and Digit Challenges measure logical reasoning, spatial memory, and numerical speed under strict time limits, making them functionally equivalent to traditional aptitude tests. The key difference is format: P&G's version is gamified and adaptive, powered by Aon's smartPredict platform, rather than a static written test. Candidates also complete the PEAK Performance Assessment, which evaluates personality, values alignment, and situational judgment. Together, the two stages screen out over 70% of applicants before interviews.
The math required for the P&G Digit Challenge is elementary - addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division with single or double-digit numbers. No algebra, fractions, or advanced formulas are tested. The challenge is not the complexity of the calculations but the speed: you have 5 minutes to solve as many equations as possible, with each answer window lasting roughly 5-10 seconds. Candidates who struggle typically do so because of time pressure, not mathematical difficulty. Practicing mental arithmetic drills until basic calculations feel automatic is more effective than studying math concepts.
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